ERP MCQs (Enterprise Resource Planning)
Key-Terms
ABC - Activity Based Costing
ASP- Application service Provider
B2B- Business To Business
B2C- Business to Consumer
BPR- Business Process Reengineering
CRM- Customer Relationship Management
CRP- Capacity Requirement Planning
DBMS- Database Management System
DGMS- Dialog generation and management system
EDI - Electronic Data Exchange
EOQ- Economic Order Quantity
ERP- Enterprise Resource Planning
EWIS- Enterprise wide information system
FI - Financial Accounting
HCM- Human capital Management
HR - Human Resources
HRM- Human Resource Management
IS - Information System
M/S - Marketing and sales
MBMS- Model based management system
MM - Material Management
MPS - Master Production Schedule
MRP- Material Requirement Planning
OLAP-
PLM- Product Life cycle Management
QAS- Quality Assurance system
QM- Quality Management
SCM- Supply chain Management
SME‟s- Small and medium enterprise
VAN- Value Added Network
XML- Extensible Markup Language
SECTION 1
1. Which of the following
describes an ERP system?
A) ERP systems provide a
foundation for collaboration between departments
B) ERP systems enable people
in different business areas to communicate
C) ERP systems have been
widely adopted in large organisations to store critical knowledge used to make
the decisions that drive the organisation's performance
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Response: All of the above describe
ERP systems.
2. What is at the heart of any
ERP system?
A) Information
B) Employees
C) Customers
D) Database
Answer: D
Response: At the heart of an ERP
system is a central database.
3. What must a system do to
qualify as a true ERP solution?
A) Be flexible
B) Be modular and closed
C) Extend within the company
D) All of the above
Answer: A Level:
Medium
Response: To qualify as a true ERP
solution the system must be flexible, modular and open, and extend beyond the
company.
4. Which of the following is a
reason for ERPs explosive growth?
A) ERP is a logical solution
to the mess of incompatible applications
B) ERP addresses the need for
global information sharing and reporting
C) ERP is used to avoid the
pain and expense of fixing legacy systems
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Response: All of the above are
reasons for ERPs explosive growth.
5. Which of the following
occurs when everyone involved in sourcing, producing, and delivering the
company's product works with the same information?
A) Eliminates redundancies
B) Cuts down wasted time
C) Removes misinformation
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Response: All of the above occur due
to the use of an ERP system.
6. What are several different
types of software, which sit in the middle of and provide connectivity between
two or more software applications?
A) Middleware
B) Enterprise application
integration middleware
C) Automated business process
D) e-business infrastructure
Answer: A
Response: This is the definition of
middleware.
7. What represents a new
approach to middleware by packaging together commonly used functionality, such
as providing prebuilt links to popular enterprise applications, which reduces
the time necessary to develop solutions that integrate applications from
multiple vendors?
A) Middleware
B) Enterprise application
integration middleware
C) Automated business process
D) e-business infrastructure
Answer: B
Response: This is the definition of
enterprise application integration middleware.
8. Who are the primary users
of SCM systems?
A) Sales, marketing, customer
service
B) Accounting, finance,
logistics, and production
C) Customers, resellers,
partners, suppliers, and distributors
D) All of the above
Answer: C
Response: The primary users of SCM
systems are customers, resellers, partners, suppliers, and distributors.
9. What are the primary
business benefits of an ERP system?
A) Sales forecasts, sales
strategies, and marketing campaigns
B) Market demand, resource and
capacity constraints, and real-time scheduling
C) Forecasting, planning,
purchasing, material management, warehousing, inventory, and distribution
D) All of the above
Answer: C
Response: The primary business
benefits of an ERP system include forecasting, planning, purchasing, material
management, warehousing, inventory, and distribution.
10. Who are the primary users
of ERP systems?
A) Sales, marketing, customer
service
B) Accounting, finance,
logistics, and production
C) Customers, resellers,
partners, suppliers, and distributors
D) All of the above
Answer: B
Response: The primary users of ERP
systems are accounting, finance, logistics, and production.
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Part A – 1 Mark |
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1.
_________ handling and
sharing has become a vital process for efficient and effective working of any
organisation.
a. Material
b. Resource
c. Information(*)
d. Database
2.
________ became the
fundamental concept of production management and control.
a. BOM
b. MRP(*)
c. ERP
d. MRP II
3. In
the _________, ERP packages were targeted at the manufacturing industry.
a. 1970’s
b. 1990's(*)
c. 1980’s
d. 1960’s
4.
The _________ should
plan well and execute perfectly the implementation of ERP.
a. Organisation
b. System
developers(*)
c. Vendors
d. Top
Management
5.
Which is one of the most
critical steps in the ERP implementation?
a. Creation
of Organisational Model
b. Creation
of Integrated Data Model(*)
c. Creation of Business Model
d. Creation of Data Model
6. What
is one of the key resources of every organisation, in today’s competitive
business environment?
a. Employee
b. Information(*)
c. ERP
d. Database
7. When a customer
needs to check the performance of the company before he places an order, which
department has to be in a position to provide the necessary information?
a. Production
b. Quality
c. Marketing(*)
d. Finance
8. In an
integrated data model, what gives a snapshot of the organisation at any given
time?
a. ERP
b. Database(*)
c. Management
d. MIS
9. OLAP
stands for:
a. On-Line
Analytical Processing(*)
b. On-Line
Account Processing
c. On-Line
Arithmetic Processing
d. On-Line
Application Processing
10. Data mining is the
process of identifying valid, new, potentially useful, and ultimately clear
______________ from databases.
a. Decision
b. Strategies
c. Information(*)
d. Account
11. EIS stands for:
a. Executive
Interaction System
b. Executive
Interconnecting Systems
c. Executive
Information Systems(*)
d. Executive
Instrumental Systems
12. DSS is quite
_______________ and is available on request.
a. Structured
b. Non-structured
c. Semi-structured
d. Unstructured(*)
13. ERP system is
built on a ____________ utilising a common computing platform
a. Centralised
database(*)
b. Individual
databases
c. Modular
databases
d. Centralised
layout
14. Which of the
following is an example for commercial ERP
a. ERP5
b. Microsoft
Dynamics AX(*)
c. Compiere
d. Fisterra
15. NPV is the
abbreviation of
a. Net
Present Variation method
b. Net
Present Value method
c. Neutral
Present Value method(*)
d. Net
Preventive Value method
16. ERP vendors usually
design their systems around standard business processes, based upon
____________________
a. Business
standards
b. Global standards
c. Best business practices.(*)
d. Best profitable standards
17. The _______ module's
internal functions do not directly interact with the data or processes of other
modules.
a. Finance
b. Quality
Management(*)
c. Sales and
Distribution
d. Plant
Maintenance
18. Which among the
following systems can be assigned to a cost centre directly which illustrates
the interface to the cost accounting system?
a. FAPA
b. Purchasing
c. Sales and
Distribution
d. CASO(*)
19. Which system provides
the foundation for creating concurrent business processes across the supply
chain and achieving Return on Assets (ROA) improvement?
a. Finance
b. Inventory
c. Manufacturing(*)
d. Sales
20. The processes
described in the quality manual can be implemented and automated in the EDP
system. Here what does EDP stand for?
a. Electronic
Data Processing(*)
b. Electronic
Dictionary Project
c. Electrical
Data Processing
d. Employee
Development Plan
21. What is the key
to MRP?
a. Quantity
of requirements for components are based upon the structure of the Bill of
Material.
b. Production
of requirements for components are based upon the structure of the Bill of
Material.
c. Time-phasing
of requirements for components are based upon the structure of the Bill of Material.(*)
d. Capacity
of requirements for components are based upon the structure of the Bill of
Material.
22. During the 80s,
tools were developed to assist the planning of:
a. Production
levels(*)
b. Priority
planning system
c. Capacity
requirements
d. Planning
functions
a. Information that is useful to all functional areas and encourage cross-functional interaction.
b. Information with cost data.(*)
c. Information that can be used for other company functions.
24. ERP is
restricted to being a _________operations system in the country.
a. Finance
b. Budgeting
modules
c. Manufacturing
d. Transaction-oriented(*)
25. ________________ allow
companies to enter requirements for various types of items.
a. Purchase
order
b. Purchase
requisitions(*)
c. Invoice
d. General
ledger
26. What is EDI?
a. Electronic
Data Interface
b. Exchange
Data Interchange
c. Exchange
Data Interface
d. Electronic
Data Interchange(*)
27. _________ module
supports the entire sales and purchase processes from start to finish.
a. Order
management(*)
b. Sales
management
c. Purchase
management
d. Master
Data Management
28. ___________evaluates
whether or not customer contract agreement are being met.
a. Purchase
order management
b. Sales
order management
c. Master
data management
d. Warehouse
management(*)
29. ____________
maintains reports of warehouse supplies.
a. ERP
financial module
b. ERP Inventory software module(*)
c. ERP
Resource module
d. ERP
verification module
30. Web ERP is
suitable for ____________ .
a. Both small
and big organisations(*)
b. Only big
organisations
c. Medium
scale organisations
d. Only small
organisations
31. RFP stands for
____________________ .
a. Request
For Productivity
b. Request
For Profits
c. Request
For Processing
d. Request
For Proposal(*)
32. Installing ERP
Inventory systems is ____________ .
a. Simple
b. Trouble free
c. Complex(*)
d. Cost
effective
33. In recent
years, CRM has become a primary component of:
a. ERP
vendors
b. ERP
software solutions.(*)
c. CRM
software
d. CRM
solutions
34. ____________is
the most common operating system for running CRM software
a. UNIX(*)
b. Windows
NT
c. Windows
Vista
d. Windows
XP
35. __________
module keeps track of liquidation process.
a. Market
management module
b. Liquidation
module
c. Treasury
module(*)
d. Enterprise
management module
36. ____________
system maintains employees information in graphical format.
a. Employee
master data(*)
b. Personnel
administration
c. Payroll
accounting
d. Benefits
administration
37. As processes become more automated
and efficient,
a. It is best
to treat ERP as an investment as well as a cost-cutting measure.
b. It is not
best to treat ERP as an investment as well as a cost-cutting measure.
c. It is best
to treat ERP as an disinvestment as well as a cost-cutting measure.
d. It is best
to treat ERP as an investment but not as a cost-cutting measure.(*)
38. ETO means
a. Engineer-to-Order(*)
b. Engineer-to-Offe
c. Enterprise-to-Order
d. Enterprise-to-Offer
39.
The vendor should have a
_______, who must constantly interact with the implementation team.
a. Liaison
officer(*)
b. Project
Supervisor
c. Project
Manager
d. Implementation
co-ordinator
40. Identify the correct
statement.
a. The only
problem with the package vendors is that they are very expensive.
b. The only
problem with the business consultants is that they are very expensive.(*)
c. The only
problem with the employee training is that it is very expensive.
d. The only
problem with the planning of implementation is that it is very expensive.
PART B – 2 mark questions
1.
When ERP system is
introduced in a company, many employees find the transformation difficult to
accept because of which of the two reasons:
1. The
employees are not given proper training.
2. Employees who were earlier
doing the work of recording information are transformed into decision-makers.
3. Of fear of
unemployment.
4. They fear
that ERP systems will revolutionalise the way they live and work.
a. 1
& 2
b. 3 & 4
c. 2
& 4
d. 1
& 3(*)
2.
The package should be
_________ and should have installations in countries where the _________ has
offices.
a. Domestic,
Vendor
b. International,
Company(*)
c. International, System
developer
d. International,
Vendor
3. The
________ should be a replica of the organisation’s ________ processes.
a. MIS,
Business
b. ERP,
Financial
c. MIS,
Financial
d. ERP,
Business(*)
4. The
disadvantages of a system when it works in isolation are:
1.
It becomes difficult to
collect and analyse data needed for the functioning of any department.
2.
It results in the loss
of profits to the organisation that could have been better spent in decision
making.
3.
Business executive or
decision-maker cannot take good decisions with the isolated data.
a. 1 & 3(*)
b. 1 & 2
c. 2 & 3
d. 1
5. MIS
is a computer-based system that optimises the
___________________________ of information
throughout an organisation. 1. Collation
2. Collection
3. Transfer
4. Presentation
a. 1, 2,
& 3
b. 1, 3, & 4(*)
c. 1, 2,
& 4
d. 1, 2, 3,
& 4
6. In
the next generation, DSS hardware and software will be embedded with the latest
technological innovations like the
1. Planning and forecasting models,
2. Fourth generation languages,
3. Artificial intelligence.
4. Data mining
a. 1, 3,
& 4
b. 1, 2,
& 3(*)
c. 1 & 3
d. 3 & 4
7. The
stakeholders within the enterprise must
a. Be
involved in the project initiation phase where the decision making process is
agreed and attend Vendor demonstrations(*)
b. Not assist
in the gathering of requirements
c. Not be
involved in vendor demonstration
d. Involve
only in vendor demonstration
8. One
common mistake that companies resort when selecting an ERP system is
a. Non biased
selection
b. Over-emphasis
on system cost(*)
c. Complete
set of requirements
d. Not
relying on vendor demos
9. The
sales and distribution modules of many ERP vendors, offer a comprehensive set
of best of its kind components for both _______ and _______ management.
a. Manufacturing,
Production
b. Sales,
Distribution
c. Planning,
Business
d. Order,
Logistics(*)
10. ______
are collected and archived in a
manner that offers full support for
_______ process control techniques.
a. Product
quality metrics, Statistical(*)
b. Statics,
Product quality metrics
c. Production
quality, Statistical
d. Product
quality metrics, Financial
11. Identify the correct statements.
1.
The manufacturing
segment accounts for nearly 25% of the total Information Technology
2.
The process and discrete
manufacturing segments spent a total of Rs 2,605 crore on IT in the year
1996-97.
3.
The manufacturing
segment helps in improving IT infrastructure, automating internal and external
processes, and better decision-making.
4.
Discrete manufacturing
accounted for nearly 15% of the total segment spending and the rest came in
from process manufacturing.
a. 1
& 4
b. 2
& 3
c. 1
& 3(*)
d. 2
& 4
12. Identify the
two aims of JIT approach applied to the organisation. 1. Production system
2. Elimination of Waste
3. Total Employee Involvement
4. Production philosophy
a. 1 & 2
b. 2 & 3(*)
c. 1 & 4
d. 3 & 4
13. Which among the
following information is available in the Supplier file? 1. Purchasing
information
2. Payment terms
3. Tolerance for receiving and invoicing
4. Addresses
a. 1
b. 3 & 4
c. 1,
2, 3 & 4(*)
d. 2 & 3
14. The Sales Support
component helps the sales and marketing department to……………………...
a. Support existing customers
only.
b. Supports
in developing new business.
c. Support
existing customers but does and help to develop new business.
d. Support
existing customers and, at the same time, to develop new business.(*)
15. Identify the correct
answer: The three major activities associated with ERP inventory management
are:
A. Identifying inventory requirements
B.
Customising information
C. Monitoring item usages
D. Integrating the inventory balances
a. B,C,D
b. D,A,B
c. A,C,D(*)
d. C,B,A
16. Select the modules that decides the inputs required and suppliers for delivery?
A.
Inventory placing
B. Inventory order assessment
C. Inventory requisition
D.Supplier Performa
a. A,D
b. D,B
c. C,B(*)
d. D,C
17. CRM
yields employees with
______________ and improves personal
___________ efficiencies
a. Work, work
advantage
b. Customisation,
work
c. Work
advantage, work(*)
d. Customisation,
work advantage
18. Identify the
right answer.
The two major objectives of Human Resources are:
A. To provides instant updates of information.
B. To make the workflow cost effective.
C. To provide training to the employees.
D. To provide self service benefits to the employees.
a. B,C,
b. D,A,
c. B,D(*)
d. A,C
19. As processes become more
automated and efficient,
a. It is best
to treat ERP as an investment as well as a cost-cutting measure.(*)
b. It is not
best to treat ERP as an investment as well as a cost-cutting measure.
c. It is best
to treat ERP as an disinvestment as well as a cost-cutting measure.
d. It is best
to treat ERP as an investment but not as a cost-cutting measure.
20.
The ____________________
and ____________________ manage the supplier relations, monitor the vendor
activities and manage the supplier quality in an organisation.
a. Supplier
management, customisation processes
b. Supplier
maintenance, control processes
c. Supplier
management, control processes(*)
d. Supplier
maintenance, customisation processes
PART C – 4 mark questions
1.
The direct benefits of
an ERP system include:
a. Business
integration, Flexibility, Improved customer goodwill, Customer satisfaction.
b. Business
integration, Better analysis and planning capabilities, Flexibility, Use of
latest technology.(*)
c. Better
analysis and planning capabilities, Flexibility, Use of latest technology,
Customer satisfaction.
d. Improved
customer goodwill, Customer satisfaction, Use of latest technology,
Flexibility.
2.
Identify the correct
statement (s) about MIS.
1. A system that produce information
products that support many of the day-to-day decision making needs of the
management.
2. Also called information managing system.
3. A system
that satisfies the needs of the top level management.
4. A system that
operates at a departmental level.
a. 2 & 3
b. 1 & 4(*)
c. 4
d. 1, 2 &
3
3. An
ideal interface for an EIS would be the one that is: 1. Simple to use.
2. Highly flexible.
3. Provides consistent performance.
4. Reflects the executive’s world.
a. 1, 2,
& 3
b. 2, 3,
& 4
c. 1, 2, 3,
& 4(*)
d. 1, 2,
& 4
4. Arrange
the following statements in correct order A. Determining the timing of data
migration
B. Deciding on migration related setups C. Identifying the data
to be migrated D. Freezing the tools for data migration E. Deciding on data
archiving
F. Generating the data templates
a. C, F,A,B,
D, E
b. C, A, F,
D, B, E
c. F, D, A,
C, B, E(*)
d. D, A, C,
B, E, F
5. Identify
the subsystems of Plant Maintenance module of an ERP system: 1. Component
Tracking
2. Preventive Maintenance Control
3. Inventory Management
4. Cost Management
a. 1, 2 &
3
b. 2, 3 &
4
c. 1 & 2(*)
d. 1, 3 &
4
6. Identify
the main components of PDM systems-- 1. Data Management
2. Classification of Components
3. Product Structure
4. Document relationships
a. 1, 2 &
3(*)
b. 1, 4 &
3
c. 2 & 3
d. 4 & 3
7. Sub
modules of Sales and Distribution modules are: 1. Order Management
2. Warehouse Management
3. Foreign Trade
4. Sales Support
a. 3
b. 1 & 2
c. 2 & 4
d. 1, 2, 3
& 4(*)
8. Match
the following: First set:
1. Material request management
2. Material Issue
3. Material Receipt
4. Stock Valuation
Second set:
A. A receipt is issued from the seller.
B. Stock is
verified mechanically.
C. Appeal for
materials is made from various departments.
D. Materials
are issued as per order.
a. 1A, 2B,
3C, 4D.(*)
b. 2A, 3C,
4D, 1B.
c. 4A, 2C,
3D, 1B.
d. 3B, 2D,
4C, 1A.
9. Components
of a CRM system are: 1. Users
2. Hardware and Operating Systems
3. CRM Software
4. Business Processes
a. 3 &4
b. 1,
2, 3 & 4(*)
c. 2 & 4
d. 1,2 &
3
10. State whether
the following are True/False.
1. HRM
defines enterprise planning for work and job roles with respect to specific
language.
2. HRM
defines staff selection and decides various phases of the project according the
policies of the company.
3. HRM does
not facilitate recruitment process.
4. HRM
deploys effective search engine to easily find and sort out the profiles that
is filtered with respect to the company’s criteria.
a. 1T, 2F,
3F, 4T
b. 1T, 2T,
3T, 4T
c. 1T, 2T,
3F, 4T(*)
d. 1T, 2T,
3F, 4F
11. Important point to be
kept in mind while evaluating ERP software is the total costs that includes
1. Cost of license
2. Cost of
Training
3. Implementation
and maintenance cost.
4. Customisation
and hardware requirements costs.
a. 1, 2,
& 3
b. 2, 3,
& 4
c. 1, 2, 3,
& 4(*)
d. 1, 2,
& 4
12. Match the
following sets of topology categories and their examples. First Set:
1. Internal failure costs
2. External failure costs
3. Appraisal costs,
4. Prevention costs
Second Set:
A. Costs of scrap.
B. Design and development of new quality
equipment C. Cost of inspecting upon arrival.
D. Warranty claims.
a. 1A, 2D,
3C, 4B(*)
b. 1C, 2B,
3D, 4A
c. 1C, 2D,
3A, 4B
d. 1C, 2A,
3B, 4D
13. World Software
automatically allows the user to,
1. Selectively mix, match and integrate
software applications.
2. Easily modify it to ongoing business,
local and organisation-specific requirements.
3. Maximise productivity by shrinking the amount of training
users need. 4. Add WorldVision, its advanced graphical user interface.
a. 1 & 3
b. 2, 3,
& 4
c. 1, 2, & 3
d. 1, 2, & 4(*)
14. Identify the statements whether
true or false.
1. Consultants come up with
innovations that make the packages more efficient and flexible to implement and
use.
2. New ERP packages don’t have
features and functionality to cater to the needs of businesses in all sectors.
3. The company can develop the
training and testing environment for the implementation team as they acquire
the package.
4. There is no need to provide
the in-house experts a through training on the features of the package.
a. 1T, 2F, 3F & 4T
b. 1T, 2T, 3T, & 4F
c. 1F, 2T, 3F, & 4F
d. 1F, 2F, 3T, & 4F(*)
15. Identify the statements whether
true or false.
1. SAP R/3 application Reference Model
provides views of R/3 processes, data models and functions.
2. BAPIs are implemented and stored in the
R/3 system as RFC modules.
3. BAPIs can be called as sets of methods
that never allows external applications to collaborate with specific R/3
business objects.
4. BAPIs gives flexibility to the second
party application vendors to build supporting applications for the R/3 system.
a. 1T, 2T, 3F & 4T(*)
b. 1F, 2T, 3T, & 4F
c. 1F, 2T, 3F, & 4T
d. 1F, 2F, 3T, & 4F
1. Material Requirement Planning(MRP) utilizes software applications for scheduling _________.
A. sales management.
B. production processes.
C. marketing techniques.
D. human resource management.
ANSWER: B
2. ERP supports __________ currency value.
A. multiple.
B. single.
C. three.
D. five.
ANSWER: A
3. ERP package will handle ________ business functionalities.
A. one.
B. two.
C. three.
D. all.
ANSWER: D
4. The most important step of ERP implementation is _________ phase.
A. installing.
B. training.
C. gap analysis.
D. testing.
ANSWER: C
5. An enterprise is a group of people with ________.
A. common goal.
B. separate goal for each department.
C. multiple goals.
D. two or more goals.
ANSWER: A
6. In _________, entire organization is considered as a system and the departments are its subsystem.
A. business way.
B. general.
C. enterprise way.
D. planning.
ANSWER: C
7. An information system produces information using the ________ cycle.
A. data analysis.
B. input-process-output.
C. input-output.
D. process-input-output.
ANSWER: B
8. __________ used to support the old process to become useful in the new process, involves reducing some
requirements while expanding others.
A. Transitioning the information.
B. software management.
C. front-office software.
D. information system.
ANSWER: A
9. The traditional business system is called as _________.
A. modern method.
B. advanced method.
C. effective method.
D. legacy method.
ANSWER: D
10. Which of the following method is used to produce reports about data.
A. Decision Support Systems.
B. Executive Information Systems.
C. Query/Report Writing Tool.
D. All the above.
ANSWER: D
11. _________ approaches reduces data redundancy and provide update information.
A. Legacy system.
B. Information system.
C. Integrated data model.
D. Data base.
ANSWER: C
12. The elapsed time between placing an order and it receiving it is also known as _____.
A. elapsed time.
B. waiting time.
C. time interval.
D. expected time.
ANSWER: A
13. In order to reduce the lead times, the organization should have an efficient __________ system.
A. purchasing.
B. production planning.
C. inventory.
D. integrated inventory.
ANSWER: D
14. Customer specific products are also known as __________.
A. make-to-stock.
B. make-to-order.
C. goods.
D. expected products.
ANSWER: B
15. Using __________ system, business can gain effective control over engineering change orders.
A. engineering change control.
B. engineering change order.
C. inventory.
D. production planning.
ANSWER: A
16. In the case of make-to-order items, the ERP systems save time by integrating with _______ systems.
A. engineering change control.
B. engineering change order.
C. CAD and CAM.
D. CAD.
ANSWER: C
17. The __________ planning features of most ERP systems offer, both rough cut and detailed capacity planning.
A. capacity.
B. production.
C. marketing.
D. test.
ANSWER: A
18. _________ is the process by which different functional areas can work together to design and develop a product
that meets the needs of the customer.
A. Software Engineering.
B. Concurrent Engineering.
C. Knowledge Engineering.
D. Database.
ANSWER: B
19. _________ is a key issue in the formation of strategic plans in companies.
A. Computerized.
B. Quantity.
C. Quality.
D. Flexibility.
ANSWER: D
20. The business information has _______ fundamental characteristics.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. many
ANSWER: C
21. The CRM system consist of ____ components.
A. 2.
B. 3.
C. 5.
D. many.
ANSWER: B
22. _________ is the first phase in BPR.
A. Begin organizational change.
B. Identifying BPR opportunities.
C. Reengineering the process.
D. Blueprint the new business system.
ANSWER: A
23. The first step in business strategy is ________.
A. planning.
B. develop blueprint.
C. marketing.
D. assessment.
ANSWER: D
24. During the ___________ session the reengineering must also consider new technologies.
A. planning
B. implementing.
C. brainstorming.
D. training.
ANSWER: C
25. The reengineering team must consider _________ in the redesign of a process.
A. all resources.
B. all process stakeholders.
C. existing system.
D. legacy system.
ANSWER: B
26. The ________ contains models of the redesigned organizational structure.
A. planning report.
B. blueprint.
C. marketing strategy.
D. implementation report.
ANSWER: B
27. Transforming the workforce will require a _________.
A. array of activities.
B. blueprint.
C. training and education.
D. planning.
ANSWER: A
28. The primary concept of _________ is that storing huge amount of data.
A. data mining.
B. OLAP.
C. supply chain management.
D. data warehousing.
ANSWER: D
29. A data warehouse is a collection of _________ that is critical to the successful execution of enterprise initiatives.
A. raw data.
B. tables.
C. computer based information.
D. reports.
ANSWER: C
30. W.H.Inmon is credited as the father _________ concepts.
A. Data mining.
B. Data warehouse.
C. BPR.
D. OLAP.
ANSWER: B
31. The heart of data warehouse is its ________ where the bulk of data resides.
A. current data.
B. raw data.
C. new data.
D. reports.
ANSWER: A
32. The data warehouse archives contain __________ of significant, continuing interest and value to the enterprise.
A. new data.
B. current data.
C. old data.
D. meta data.
ANSWER: C
33. ____________ oversee the day-to-day operations of respective functional areas during ERP implementation.
A. Consultant.
B. Package vendor.
C. End users.
D. Functional managers
ANSWER: D
34. Data mining is a powerful new technology to __________ from large databases.
A. extraction of hidden predictive information.
B. generating reports.
C. retrieving data.
D. show result.
ANSWER: A
35. __________ is used to produce reports about data.
A. Data access. .
B. DSS,EIS and query writing tools.
C. DSS
D. Query writing tools
ANSWER: B
36. The __________ used by the data mining for the creation of information about data.
A. data verification.
B. data validation.
C. discovery model.
D. analysis model.
ANSWER: C
37. __________ is the task of identifying a finite set of most categories the data set.
A. Predicting.
B. Classification.
C. Deviation detection.
D. Clustering.
ANSWER: D
38. The OLAP concept has _________ rules.
A. 12
B. 10
C. 5
D. 50
ANSWER: A
39. OLAP transforms data warehouse data into _________.
A. reports.
B. strategic information.
C. existing data.
D. tables.
ANSWER: B
40. A _________ provides more than the ability to "slice and dice".
A. single dimensional view of data.
B. reports.
C. multi dimensional view of data.
D. forms.
ANSWER: C
41. ___________ focus on the process of communicating, teaching, demonstrating and configuring software for the
business process flows.
A. Management consultants.
B. Application consultants.
C. Package vendors.
D. Functional participants.
ANSWER: B
42. ________ departments use OLAP for applications such as budgeting, activity based costing and so on.
A. Financial.
B. Marketing.
C. Purchasing.
D. Sales.
ANSWER: A
43. ________ information is computed data that usually reflects complex relationships.
A. Database.
B. Just-in-time.
C. Real.
D. Processed.
ANSWER: B
44. OLAP databases must be able to do more than ________.
A. complex aggregation.
B. expected result.
C. simple aggregation.
D. derived result.
ANSWER: C
45. The computation of the _________ is one of the most complex calculations.
A. forecast.
B. production.
C. sales.
D. planning.
ANSWER: A
46. Expand DRP.
A. data reprocessing.
B. descriptive requirements planning.
C. distribution requirements planning.
D. data requirements planning.
ANSWER: C
47. _________ is one of the benefits of supply chain management.
A. Easy process.
B. Manufacturing make-to-stock products.
C. Minimum time.
D. Faster response-to-market changes.
ANSWER: D
48. _________ is a track-proven technology applicable to every company.
A. OLAP.
B. Supply chain management.
C. Data mining.
D. Data warehousing.
ANSWER: B
49. The companies can use supply chain management for ________.
A. critical business process.
B. effective planning.
C. inventory control.
D. material management.
ANSWER: A
50. Which committee formulates the long term goals, objectives and strategies regarding the ERP implementation.
A. Executive committee.
B. Project management committee.
C. Implementation team.
D. End-users.
ANSWER: A
51. The three fundamental characteristics of information are ________.
A. accuracy, relevancy and timeliness.
B. quality, quantity and process.
C. accuracy, quality and relevancy.
D. quality, accuracy and timeliness.
ANSWER: A
52. The main drawback of legacy system is ________.
A. less effectiveness.
B. high cost.
C. no integration.
D. more modules.
ANSWER: C
53. ________ is group of people with common goal.
A. Department
B. System.
C. Resource.
D. Enterprise.
ANSWER: D
54. The three performance related measures are _________.
A. system, hardware and software.
B. quality, quantity and product design.
C. cost, time and benefits.
D. hardware, software and product design.
ANSWER: C
55. The _________ model fails in creating the integrated information environment in business.
A. traditional information.
B. modern information.
C. ERP.
D. computerized.
ANSWER: A
56. Most organizations are implementing or planning to implement __________.
A. packaged software solution.
B. separate software solution.
C. simple software.
D. complex software.
ANSWER: A
57. ERP system is for _______.
A. major departments only. .
B. entire organization.
C. marketing and sales.
D. production department
ANSWER: B
58. The cost of ERP is ________.
A. depends on the package.
B. depends on available resources.
C. technology used
D. all the above.
ANSWER: D
59. ASAP road-map is a detailed project plan by _______ that describes all activities in an implementation.
A. SAP.
B. ORACLE.
C. PeopleSoft.
D. Baan.
ANSWER: A
60. The company should conduct a _________ about the implementation and implementation strategies.
A. feasibility study.
B. survey.
C. case study.
D. test.
ANSWER: A
61. ERP implementation process has _______ phases.
A. one.
B. two.
C. five.
D. eleven.
ANSWER: D
62. In pre-selection phase, _______ packages will be selected.
A. 5.
B. 10.
C. 15.
D. more than 15.
ANSWER: A
63. PeopleSoft is strong in ________.
A. manufacturing.
B. HR.
C. plant and maintenance.
D. finance.
ANSWER: B
64. Baan company is strong in ________.
A. manufacturing.
B. HR.
C. plant and maintenance.
D. finance.
ANSWER: A
65. What is the strategy of package evaluation?
A. Trail and error.
B. Accept with error.
C. Do it right the first time.
D. Take it as a trial.
ANSWER: C
66. The objective of package evaluation is to find a package that covers ________ requirements.
A. minimum.
B. 50%.
C. 99%.
D. each and every.
ANSWER: D
67. In ___________ phase roles are identified and responsibilities assigned.
A. project planning.
B. gap analysis.
C. reengineering.
D. configuration.
ANSWER: A
68. The project planning phase will be headed by _______.
A. management.
B. vendor.
C. ERP in-charge.
D. consultant.
ANSWER: C
69. Normally the ERP package needs ________ of company's functional requirements.
A. 50%.
B. 60%.
C. 80%.
D. 100%.
ANSWER: C
70. The ________ team normally includes hired consultants and the in-house team.
A. work team
B. project management team.
C. executive committee.
D. all the above.
ANSWER: A
71. The _________ approach emphasizes the human element of necessary change within organizations.
A. OLAP.
B. data mining.
C. data warehousing.
D. BPR.
ANSWER: D
72. Baan company users an automated configuration tool is known as _______.
A. industry specific templates.
B. orgware.
C. complete solutions.
D. automatic updation.
ANSWER: B
73. The test cases must be decided specifically to find the _________ in the system.
A. methods.
B. real cases.
C. weak links.
D. loops.
ANSWER: C
74. In which phase, data conversion is done?
A. Going live.
B. Testing.
C. Training.
D. Configuration.
ANSWER: A
75. In which phase the actual users of the system will be given training on how to use the system?
A. Gap analysis.
B. Reengineering.
C. Implementation team training.
D. End user training.
ANSWER: D
76. _______ is the last phase in ERP implementation life cycle.
A. Testing.
B. End user training.
C. Post implementation.
D. Going live.
ANSWER: C
77. Which is the important thing the selection of package?
A. Selection of vendor.
B. Selection of consultant.
C. Selection of implementation team.
D. Assigning roles and responsibilities
ANSWER: B
78. Generally an ERP implementation can be divided into _________ phases.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
ANSWER: A
79. Which is the first phase in ERP implementation?
A. Understanding the problem.
B. Defining solutions.
C. Getting down to work.
D. Going live.
ANSWER: A
80. _________ should determine the characteristic of the current system before implementation.
A. Decision makers.
B. Project team members.
C. Decision makers and project team members.
D. Management.
ANSWER: C
81. Which is the most critical phase in ERP implementation?
A. Understanding the problem.
B. Defining solutions.
C. Getting down to work.
D. Going live.
ANSWER: B
82. All basic definitions of information and data modeling will be made in ______ phase.
A. pre-implementation.
B. post implementation.
C. defining solutions.
D. going live.
ANSWER: C
83. During the second phase of ERP implementation _______ will be created.
A. model of existing system.
B. data design.
C. module design.
D. prototype.
ANSWER: D
84. Which phase is most difficult phase in ERP implementation?
A. Getting down to work.
B. Going live.
C. Post implementation.
D. Configuration.
ANSWER: A
85. The end-user and managers are trained ______.
A. during implementation.
B. after implementation.
C. before implementation.
D. during and after implementation.
ANSWER: D
86. ________ is one of the activities in getting down to work.
A. Analyses existing system.
B. Analyses above new system.
C. Identifying roles.
D. Document the new procedures.
ANSWER: D
87. ERP packages are ________ and set of functionalities.
A. same architecture.
B. different architecture.
C. same concept.
D. different concept.
ANSWER: B
88. In the initial stages ERP packages were targeted at ________ industry.
A. manufacturing.
B. non-manufacturing.
C. both manufacturing and non-manufacturing.
D. service oriented industry.
ANSWER: A
89. ______ process decides the success or failure of the project.
A. Handling the vendors.
B. Role of technology.
C. Selection process.
D. Implementation.
ANSWER: C
90. To evaluate the process during implementation ______ is essential.
A. executive committee.
B. top management.
C. consultation.
D. evaluation committee.
ANSWER: D
91. The company should do a _________ to limit the number of packages to be considered.
A. pre-evaluation screening.
B. post implementation.
C. project planning.
D. gap analysis.
ANSWER: A
92. ______ is one of the objectives when selecting a ERP package.
A. Accuracy.
B. Flexibility.
C. Project planning.
D. Gap analysis.
ANSWER: B
93. Most ERP packages are stronger in _____ areas.
A. all.
B. less.
C. certain.
D. general.
ANSWER: C
94. Market risk management plays a vital role in analyzing _______.
A. company's growth.
B. company's competitiveness.
C. company's sales.
D. product quality..
ANSWER: B
95. During analysis it is important to investigate ____________ of the different packages.
A. effectiveness.
B. worth.
C. cost.
D. origin.
ANSWER: D
96. The _________________ are constantly striving to lower configuration costs.
A. vendors.
B. consultants.
C. management.
D. employees.
ANSWER: A
97. ___________ function helps in hiring the right people with the right skills.
A. Recruitment management.
B. Personnel administration.
C. Personnel management.
D. Organizational management.
ANSWER: A
98. Project planning phase is ________________________ in ERP implementation.
A. first phase.
B. third phase.
C. fifth phase.
D. seventh phase.
ANSWER: B
99. For training the employees will be divided into groups based on their_____________.
A. qualification. .
B. department.
C. computer knowledge.
D. current skill levels
ANSWER: D
100. In ERP system ______ is important.
A. upgrading techniques.
B. modification.
C. maintenance.
D. evaluation.
ANSWER: A
101. A successful training will account for a minimum of ______of the total project cost.
A. 10-15%.
B. 10-20%.
C. 5-10%.
D. 5-15%
ANSWER: A
102. Testing the links between ERP packages and other corporate software links that have to be building on a
______________ basis.
A. sample.
B. case-to-case.
C. random.
D. time.
ANSWER: B
103. When testing ERP system, _____________ is recommended.
A. using dummy data.
B. using sample value.
C. using approximate value.
D. running a real purchase order.
ANSWER: D
104. In legacy system, most of the data are__________________________.
A. exact data.
B. approximate data.
C. redundant.
D. derived data.
ANSWER: C
105. Users with heavy data analysis needs should include the cost of _________ in the ERP budget.
A. software.
B. analysis tool.
C. data warehouse.
D. hardware.
ANSWER: C
106. Once the ERP system is implemented the current ______________ will be replaced by new ones.
A. process.
B. procedures.
C. techniques.
D. process and procedures.
ANSWER: D
107. Which process makes the decision makers to get accurate information, in which format they want?
A. Decision making.
B. Planning.
C. Design.
D. Testing.
ANSWER: A
108. An ERP implementation involves ______________________ changes.
A. process.
B. technological.
C. cultural.
D. both technological and cultural.
ANSWER: D
109. Who is the head in ERP implementation team?
A. Project management.
B. Executive committee.
C. Work team.
D. Technical support team.
ANSWER: B
110. Executive committee is headed by ______________________________.
A. end users.
B. consultant.
C. CIO or CEO.
D. vendor.
ANSWER: C
111. The ______________ team is comprised of the technical leader and the executive committee head.
A. project management.
B. executive committee. .
C. work.
D. administrative support
ANSWER: A
112. ______ provides planning, scheduling and control of facilities and equipment..
A. HR module
B. Plant maintenance control.
C. Sales and distribution.
D. Finance.
ANSWER: B
113. Which team is responsible for the activities such as data migration, back up and recovery?
A. Executive committee.
B. Administrative team. .
C. Project management.
D. Technical support team
ANSWER: D
114. The ________ team will contain people from the company's IT/EDP departments.
A. in-house.
B. executive.
C. administrative.
D. technical support.
ANSWER: A
115. ______ team is responsible for making available work space.
A. Technical support.
B. Executive.
C. Administrative support.
D. Work.
ANSWER: C
116. Which team arranges meetings and documentation during ERP implementation?
A. Work team.
B. Administrative support team.
C. Project management.
D. Technical support team.
ANSWER: B
117. _________ are the people who have developed the ERP packages.
A. Consultants.
B. End users.
C. Administrative team.
D. Vendors.
ANSWER: D
118. Vendors have to be upgrading their products by using ________.
A. latest advancement in technology.
B. new software.
C. new modules.
D. new concepts.
ANSWER: A
119. The vendor should supply ________ as soon as the contract is signed.
A. product.
B. documentation.
C. product and documentation.
D. service.
ANSWER: C
120. End user training will given by _______.
A. consultant. .
B. vendor.
C. technical support team.
D. administrative support team
ANSWER: B
121. _________ are professionals who specialise in developing techniques.
A. Software engineers.
B. Vendors.
C. Technical support team members.
D. Business consultants.
ANSWER: D
122. _______ analyzes the profitability of internal responsibility centers.
A. Profit center accounting.
B. Funds management.
C. Market risk management.
D. Budgetting.
ANSWER: A
123. ___________ is responsible for administering each of the phases of the implementation.
A. Vendors.
B. Consultants.
C. Administrative team members.
D. Technical support team.
ANSWER: B
124. During ERP implementation __________ should be converted into tasks and should be allocated to the right
people.
A. rules.
B. procedures.
C. methodologies.
D. functionality
ANSWER: C
125. Along with product details, _______ should be included in the documentation.
A. product description.
B. implementation details.
C. training methods.
D. know-how.
ANSWER: D
126. The consultant should differentiate __________ and decide on the level of customization.
A. requirements and must have.
B. requirements and nice to have.
C. must have and nice to have.
D. requirements and tasks
ANSWER: C
127. _________ sub-system allows the company to analyze financial transactions for a given period.
A. Cash management.
B. Treasury management.
C. Investment management.
D. Treasury module.
ANSWER: A
128. ________________ is the people who will be using the ERP system once it is in place.
A. Management.
B. End-user.
C. Consultant.
D. Vendor.
ANSWER: B
129. In ERP, _______ supports lead generation and direct mailing campaign.
A. manufacturing module.
B. financial module.
C. purchasing module.
D. marketing module.
ANSWER: D
130. The _______ include package vendor, hardware and peripheral vendor, networking people, consultants, and
employees.
A. testing.
B. training.
C. ERP implementation.
D. ERP planning.
ANSWER: C
131. ________ sub-system examines the sources of returns.
A. Profitability analysis.
B. investment management.
C. cash management.
D. all the above.
ANSWER: A
132. The company's objective is to make the package work successfully as documented in the _______ manual.
A. vendor's.
B. consultant's.
C. management's.
D. technical support team's.
ANSWER: A
133. Who is responsible to check and verify the work that is being done satisfactory?
A. Project development team.
B. Executive committee.
C. Vendor.
D. Consultant.
ANSWER: B
134. Before the implementation _____ should sit together and prepare a work plan.
A. vendor and consultant.
B. consultant and management.
C. vendor and management.
D. consultant and company representative.
ANSWER: D
135. Who will lead the process of the work plan?
A. Company representative.
B. Vendor.
C. Consultant.
D. Management.
ANSWER: C
136. Who will point out the issues that are specific to the company during ERP implementation?
A. In-house team.
B. Management.
C. Vendor.
D. End-user.
ANSWER: A
137. ______ is the tool used to prepare a work plan with quality.
A. CAD.
B. CAM.
C. PERT.
D. Software.
ANSWER: C
138. The frequent monitoring will be done by ______ committee.
A. company representative.
B. executive.
C. project planning.
D. implementation.
ANSWER: B
139. Overhead orders sub-system collects and analyzes cost based on ________.
A. individual internal measures.
B. individual external measures.
C. company's internal measure.
D. company's internal measure.
ANSWER: A
140. ________ module facilitates the process of maintaining the appropriate level of stock in a warehouse.
A. HR.
B. Project planning.
C. Material management.
D. Purchasing.
ANSWER: C
141. One of the objectives of executive committee meeting is to address the issues that involve _______.
A. planning phase.
B. testing phase.
C. decisions from the top management.
D. training.
ANSWER: C
142. Non technical employees and managers can act as functional experts during ______.
A. post implementation.
B. pre-implementation.
C. implementation.
D. training.
ANSWER: B
143. The training is a ___________________ process.
A. ongoing.
B. new.
C. difficult.
D. time oriented.
ANSWER: A
144. The long term use of ERP could change the border organization in terms of its _____.
A. enterprise.
B. structure
C. function. .
D. structure and function
ANSWER: D
145. Most companies use ______ to help with the implementation process.
A. consultants.
B. vendors.
C. employees.
D. end-users.
ANSWER: A
146. For ERP implementation, the representatives should select from ______.
A. one department.
B. each department.
C. in house team.
D. executive committee.
ANSWER: B
147. _________ analyzes where overhead occurs within the organization.
A. Controlling.
B. Asset accounting.
C. Cost center accounting.
D. Product cost controlling.
ANSWER: C
148. ______ bringing out ERP application management tools.
A. Vendors.
B. Consultants.
C. Employees.
D. Technical support team.
ANSWER: A
149. Many companies offering _______ for help desks.
A. packages
B. prepackages ERP support knowledge base.
C. documentation.
D. knowledge base.
ANSWER: B
150. __________ streamlines procurement of required raw material.
A. Marketing module. .
B. Financial module.
C. Manufacturing module.
D. Purchasing module.
ANSWER: D
SECTION 3
ERP
Multiple Choice Questions and Answers
1. Demand for a given item is said to be
dependent if
A. the item has several children
B. there is a deep bill of materials
C. the finished products are mostly services
(rather than goods)
D. there is a clearly identifiable parent
Ans: D
2. Dependent demand and independent demand
items differ in that
A. for any product, all components are
dependent-demand items
B. the need for independent-demand items is
forecasted
C. the need for dependent-demand items is
calculated
D. all of the above are true
Ans: D
3. A master production schedule specifies
A. the financial resources required for
production
B. what component is to be made, and when
C. what product is to be made, and when
D. the labor hours required for production
Ans: C
4. The ______ is(are) the MRP input detailing
which end items are to be produced, when they are needed, and in what
quantities.
A. master production schedule
B. gross requirements
C. inventory records
D. assembly time chart
Ans: A
5. A master production schedule contains
information about
A. quantities and required delivery dates of all
sub-assemblies
B. quantities and required delivery dates of
final products
C. inventory on hand for each sub-assembly
D. inventory on hand for each final product
Ans: B
6. In continuous (make-to-stock) operations,
the master production schedule is usually expressed in terms of
A. end-items
B. modules
C. kits
D. customer orders
Ans: A
7. In job shop (make-to-order) operations,
the master production schedule is usually expressed in terms of
A. end-items
B. modules
C. kits
D. customer orders
Ans: D
8. The following table is an example of
a(n)
Week 1 Week 2 Week 3 Week 4 Week 5
Clothes Washer 200 100
Clothes Dryer 300 100 100 100
Upright Freezer 200 500
A. aggregate plan
B. load report
C. master production schedule
D. inventory record
Ans: C
9. The ______ is the input to Materials
Requirements Planning which lists the assemblies,
subassemblies, parts and raw materials needed
to produce one unit of finished product.
A. bill of materials
B. net requirements chart
C. inventory records
D. assembly time chart
Ans: A
10. A bill of materials lists the
A. times needed to perform all phases of
production
B. production schedules for all products
C. components, ingredients, and materials
required to produce an item
D. operations required to produce an item
Ans: C
11. One way to facilitate production
scheduling and production in firms making a large number of different
final products is to use
A. planning bills
B. modular bills
C. phantom bills
D. overdue bills
Ans: B
12. The bill of materials contains
information necessary to
A. convert (explode) net requirements at one
level into gross requirements at the next level
B. calculate quantities on hand and on order
C. convert gross requirements into net
requirements
D. place an order to replenish the item
Ans: A
13. Which of the following statements best
compares modular bills and phantom bills?
A. Both pertain to assemblies that are not
inventorieD.
B. There is no difference between the two.
C. Both pertain to assemblies that are
inventorieD.
D. Modular bills represent subassemblies that
actually exist and are inventoried, while phantom
bills represent subassemblies that exist only temporarily
and are not inventorieD.
Ans: D
14. Given the following bill-of-materials:
If the demand for product A is 50 units, what
will be the gross requirement for component E?
A. 300
B. 100
C. 200
D. 250
Ans: A
15. The minimum record accuracy required for
successful MRP is approximately
A. lower than 90%
B. 90%
C. 95%
D. 99%
Ans: D
16. Given the following bill of materials
If the demand for product A is 50 units, what
will be the gross requirement for component E?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200
Ans: A
17. Given the following bill of materials
If the demand for product A is 30 units, and
there are on hand 10 units of B and none of C, how many units of part D will be
needed?
A. 3
B. 40
C. 70
D. 90
Ans: C
18. "Exploding" the bill of
materials means
A. converting the bill of materials into
components and raw material requirements
B. identifying the lead time of all the
components
C. determining the various components'
quantities that are already on hand
D. determining the net requirements for all the
components
Ans: A
19. Low level coding means that
A. a final item has only a few levels in the BOM
structure
B. it is the code for the missing items
C. a component item is coded at the lowest level
at which it appears in the BOM structure
D. the top level of the BOM is below level zero
and that BOM's are not organized around the finished product
Ans: C
20. Each X requires 2 of component Y; each Y
requires 4 of part Z. The lead time for assembly of X is
1 week. The lead time for the manufacture of Y
is 1 week. The lead time for the procurement of Z
is 6 weeks. The cumulative lead time for X is
_____ weeks.
A. 48
B. 7
C. 8
D. 10
Ans: C
21. Each R requires 4 of component S; each S
requires 3 of part T. The lead time for assembly of R is 1 week. The lead
time for the manufacture of S is 2 weeks. The lead time for the procurement of
T is 6 weeks. The cumulative lead time for R is ______ weeks.
A. 6
B. 9
C. 12
D. 18
Ans: B
22. The MPS calls for 110 units of Product M.
There are currently 30 of Product M on hanD. Each M requires 4 of
Component N. There are 20 units of N on hanD. The gross requirements for N are
A. 150
B. 170
C. 300
D. 320
Ans: C
23. The MPS calls for 50 units of Product A
and 60 ofB. There are currently 25 of Product B on hanD. Each A requires 2
of Part C; each B requires 5 ofC. There are 160 units of C available. The
net requirements for C are
A. 115
B. 175
C. 240
D. 690
Ans: A
24. The MPS calls for 110 units of Product A,
there are currently 60 of Product A on hanD. Each A requires 4 of Part B,
there are 20 units of B available. The net requirements for B are
A. 20
B. 120
C. 180
D. 240
Ans: C
25. In MRP record calculations, the
appearance of a negative value for the gross requirements of an end item
in a specific time bucket
A. signals the need to purchase that end item in
that period
B. implies that value was scheduled by the MPS
C. signals the need for a negative Planned Order
Receipt in that period
D. is impossible
Ans: D
26. A material requirements plan contains
information with regard to all of the following except
A. quantities and required delivery dates of all
sub-assemblies
B. quantities and required delivery dates of
final products
C. the capacity needed to provide the projected
output rate
D. inventory on hand for each final product
Ans: C
27. The number of units projected to be
available at the end of each time period refers to
A. net requirements
B. scheduled receipts
C. the projected usage of the item
D. the amount projected to be on hand
Ans: D
28. Linking a part requirement with the parent component that caused the
requirement is referred to as
A. net requirements planning
B. a time fence
C. pegging
D. Kanban
Ans: C
29. In MRP, system nervousness is caused by
A. management's attempt to continually respond
to minor changes in production requirements
B. the use of the lot-for-lot approach
C. management's marking part of the master
production schedule as "not to be rescheduled"
D. the use of phantom bills of materials
Ans: A
30. One of the tools that is particularly
useful in reducing the system nervousness in the MRP system is (are)
A. modular bills
B. time phasing
C. time fences
D. lot sizing
Ans: C
31. A major strength of MRP is its capability
A. to minimize labor hours used in production
B. for timely and accurate replanning
C. to reduce lead times
D. to maximize production throughput
Ans: B
32. Material requirements plan specify
A. the quantities of the product families that
need to be produced
B. the quantity and timing of planned order
releases
C. the capacity needed to provide the projected
output rate
D. the costs associated with alternative plans 6
Ans: B
33. Which of the following statements is true
about the MRP plan when using lot-for-lot ordering?
A. The quantity of gross requirements for a
child item is always equal to the quantity of planned
order releases for its parent.
B. The quantity of gross requirements for a
child item is equal to the quantity of net requirements
for its parent(s) multiplied by the number of
child items used in the parent assembly.
C. The quantity of gross requirements for a
child item is always equal to the quantity of gross
requirements for its parent.
D. The quantity and gross requirements for a
child item is always equal to the quantity of net
requirements for its parent.
Ans: B
34. Which of the following
lot-sizing-techniques results in the lowest holding costs?
A. lot-for-lot
B. EOQ
C. part-period-balancing
D. Wagner-Whitin algorithm
Ans: A
35. What lot sizing technique is generally
preferred when inventory holding costs are extremely high?
A. lot-for-lot
B. EOQ
C. part-period balancing
D. the Wagner-Whitin algorithm
Ans: A
36. For the lot-for-lot lot-sizing technique
to be appropriate
A. future demand should be known for several
weeks
B. setup cost should be relatively small
C. annual volume should be rather low
D. item unit cost should be relatively small
Ans: B
37. MRP II is accurately described as
A. MRP software designed for services
B. MRP with a new set of computer programs that
execute on micro-computers
C. MRP augmented by other resource variables
D. usually employed to isolate manufacturing
operations from other aspects of an organization
Ans: C
38. Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) is
A. severely limited by current MRP computer
systems
B. not related to MRP
C. an advanced MRP II system that ties-in
customers and suppliers
D. not currently practical
Ans:
39. The extension of MRP which extends to
resources such as labor hours and machine hours, as well as to order
entry, purchasing, and direct interface with customers and suppliers is
A. MRP II
B. Enterprise Resource Planning
C. the master production schedule
D. closed-loop MRP 7
Ans: B
40. Distribution Resource Planning (DRP) is
A. a transportation plan to ship materials to
warehouses
B. a time-phased stock replenishment plan for
all levels of a distribution network
C. a shipping plan from a central warehouse to
retail warehouses
D. material requirements planning with feedback
loop from distribution centers
Ans: B
SECTION 4
1. Where are definitions used to create fields on a page in the user interface and columns in application data tables stored?
a. PSFIELD
b. PSRECFIELD
c. PS_DBFIELD
d. PSDBFIELD
ans:d
2. Where are the definitions that make up a PeopleSoft Application stored?
a. SYSTEM CATALOG
b. PEOPLETOOLS TABLES
c. APPLICATION TABLES
d. PEOPLETOOLS CATALOG
ans:b
3. Where is the Application Data Cached?
a. Application server
b. Web server
c. Batch server
d. Browser Cache
e. None
ans:e
5. What is the record field property that should be set to validate dates for <> 30 days?
a. Setting %Date as constant
b. Required
c. Specifying Default using Record and Field values
d. Reasonable date
e. Validate date
ans:d
6. Prompt Tables always validate against the underlying Record?
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
ans:b
7. What are the requirements of an effective dated table?
a. Define EFFDT
b. Define EFF_STATUS
c. Define EFFDT as key, in ascending order
d. Define EFFDT, EFF_STATUS
e. Define EFFDT as key, in descending order
ans:e
8. EFFDT cannot occur at what occurs levels?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4
ans:a
9. What type of a field can have Auto Update?
a. CHAR
b. LONG CHAR
c. DATE
d. IMAGE
e. NUMBER
ans:c
10. PeopleSoft tracks object changes using a system table. Which PeopleTools System table is used to track object changes?
a. SYSRELEASE
b. SYSOBJECTS
c. PSRELEASE
d. PSOBJECTS
e. PSVERSIONS
ans:c
12. Selecting Search Edit from Record Field Properties?
a. Validates a field for Data to be entered on save of search dialog.
b. Allows to edit the search key.
c. Searches Edit fields for some values.
d. Option available only for Alternate Search Keys
ans:a
13. When can a value be added in the underlying table?
a. Prompt Table with Edit
b. Translate Table Edit
c. Yes/No Edit
d. Prompt Table with No Edit
e. All of the above
ans:d
14. Which of the following record definitions is NOT stored on the database and is therefore NOT required to be built?
a. View
b. SQL Table
c. Derived/Work Record
d. Sub Record
e. Query View
ans:d,e
15. Which of the following programs is NOT used in PS SA system?
(a) Crystal
(b) Cobol
(c) SQR
(d) Powerbuilder
Answer: (d) Powerbuilder
16. Which of the following BEST describes the differences between running a process on Client and on Server?
(a) Client runs locally, whereas Server runs off PSUNX server
(b) Client runs off main server, whereas Server runs locally
(c) Client runs for reports, whereas Server runs for processes
(d) Client runs for interfaces, whereas Server runs for online transactions
Answer: (a) Client runs locally, whereas Server runs off PSUNX server
17. Which of the following demonstrates the sequential flow in generating a Statement of Account?
(a) Create Billing Request -> Print Crystal Bill -> Process Bill Request
(b) Create Billing Request -> Process Bill Request -> Print Crystal Bill
(c) Print Crystal Bill -> Process Bill Request -> Create Billing Request
(d) Print Crystal Bill -> Create Billing Request -> Process Bill Request
Answer: (b) Create Billing Request -> Process Bill Request -> Print Crystal Bill
18. Which of the following fields needs to be populated when creating a billing request?
(a) Address Usage
(b) Item Due Info Term
(c) Class Schedule
(d) Aid Term From
Answer: (a) Address Usage
19. Which of the following fields does NOT exist on the Student Bank Information panel?
(a) Bank Code
(b) Branch Code
(c) Bank Account Number
(d) Bank Account Type
Answer: (d) Bank Account Type
20. Which of the following is the equivalent term to Actual Day of Debit (i.e. date where bank processes the GIRO deduction)?
(a) Value Date
(b) Value Day
(c) Value Month
(d) Value Period
Answer: (a) Value Date
21. What is the frequency of running SingPost interface?
(a) Twice a day
(b) Once a day
(c) 4 times a week
(d) Once a fortnight
Answer: (b) Once a day
22. Which of the following processes is NOT run as a batch?
(a) Tuition Calculation
(b) Accounts Payable
(c) Quick Posting
(d) Group Posting
Answer: (c) Quick Posting
23. Which role in ITE has access to Payment Reversal panel?
(a) CPM
(b) EA/FA Dept
(c) Section Heads
(d) EA/IDS Dept
Answer: (a) CPM
24. What process is required prior to performing a charge reversal?
(a) Verify student’s account
(b) Verify student’s academic program status
(c) Verify student’s last date of attendance
(d) Verify student’s CCA participation
Answer: (a) Verify student’s account
25. Special Students’ Assistance Scheme (SSAS) is only for
(a) EDU Local Malay
(b) EDU Local Chinese
(c) CET Local Malay
(d) CET Local Chinese
Answer: (b) EDU Local Chinese
26. When SSAS panel is saved, how many records are inserted into Student Groups record?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 5
Answer: (b) 2
27. What is the flow of roles involved when an EDU student wants to withdraw from term?
(a) Student -> Class Advisor -> Counter Staff -> Section Head
(b) Student -> Class Advisor -> Section Head -> Counter Staff
(c) Student -> Section Head -> Class Advisor -> Counter Staff
(d) Student -> Counter Staff -> Section Head -> Class Advisor
Answer: (b) Student -> Class Advisor -> Section Head -> Counter Staff
28. Which of the following roles does NOT use Third Party Contracts?
(a) Admissions Officer / ITEHQ
(b) CET Program Officer / ITEHQ
(c) IDS Officer / ITEHQ
(d) FAO / ITEHQ
Answer: (d) FAO / ITEHQ
29. When is a Refund Service Indicator being used?
(a) To allow special refunds
(b) To refund students who have bad service indicators
(c) To prevent refund temporarily
(d) To cancel refund
Answer: (c) To prevent refund temporarily
30. Which of the following is NOT an External Organisation ID?
(a) RCB Number
(b) ROS Number
(c) MOE School Code
(d) Trade Union Code
Answer: (d) Trade Union Code
31. Which of the following is NOT covered in Student Financials?
(a) Waivers, Sponsorship, Grants
(b) Defaulted Payments
(c) Billing of companies
(d) Raising and printing a payment voucher
Answer: (d) Raising and printing a payment voucher
32. What is the process that interfaces the refund entries from PS SA system to PS Financials system?
(a) Accounts Payable Interface
(b) General Ledger Interface
(c) SingPost Interface
(d) Payment Interface
Answer: (a) Accounts Payable Interface
33. What is credit history used for?
(a) Track debtors
(b) Track GIRO applicants
(c) Track EDU students
(d) Track students who have refunds
Answer: (a) Track debtors
34. Which of the following is NOT an acceptable payment mode?
(a) GIRO
(b) Credit Card
(c) SAM
(d) Internet Cash Card
Answer: (b) Credit Card
35. Which of the following BEST describes refunds processing?
(a) Refunds are initiated by Class Advisors
(b) Refunds are due date driven and triggered by events
(c) Refunds are approved by Section Heads
(d) Refunds are reasons driven and triggered by events
Answer: (b) Refunds are due date driven and triggered by events
36. Who is responsible for the fee configuration in ITE?
(a) MAO (Management and Accounting Officer)
(b) FAO (Finance and Accounting Officer)
(c) TSO (Technical Support and Operations Officer)
(d) HAU (Head of Administrative Unit)
Answer: (b) FAO (Finance and Accounting Officer
37. What is the use of setting up Adjustment Calendars?
(a) Holds the refund policy of an organisation
(b) Holds the calculation rules of an organisation
(c) Holds the payment reversal rules of an organisation
(d) Holds the due dates of an organisation
Answer: (a) Holds the refund policy of an organisation
38. What is the flow of configure a term fee?
(a) Due Date Calendar -> Adj Calendar -> Criteria -> Term Fee
(b) Due Date Calendar -> Adj Calendar -> Term Fee -> Criteria
(c) Term Fee -> Criteria -> Adj Calendar -> Due Date Calendar
(d) Criteria -> Term Fee -> Adj Calendar -> Due Date Calendar
Answer: (a) Due Date Calendar -> Adj Calendar -> Criteria -> Term Fee
39. Which of the following is NOT an interface in Student Financials?
(a) SingPost
(b) GIRO
(c) AP
(d) Student Groups
Answer: (d) Student Groups
40. Which of the following is NOT an action resulting in a refund?
(a) Term Withdrawal
(b) Career Change
(c) Drop Module
(d) Add Module
Answer: (d) Add Module
41. Which of the following is NOT a payment mode starting Apr 2002?
(a) vPOST
(b) GIRO
(c) SAM
(d) Counter Service at SingPost
Answer: (a) vPOST
42. Which of the following is NOT a ITE EDU charge?
(a) Supplementary Fee
(b) Locker Fee
(c) Course Fee
(d) Examination Fee
Answer: (b) Locker Fee
43. Which of the following BEST describes Term Start Date?
(a) Date when enrolment completes
(b) Date when term activation begins
(c) Date when term activation ends
(d) Date when enrolment starts
Answer: (c) Date when term activation ends
44. Which of the following is NOT a variable when defining criteria?
(a) Academic Program
(b) Academic Plan
(c) Enrolment Date
(d) Campus
Answer: (c) Enrolment Date
45. Which of the following program fees is NOT charged by credit unit?
(a) F0ELE
(b) C2ACR
(c) T8COS
(d) F5BVT
Answer: (d) F5BVT
46. How many tuition groups are defined in PS SA system?
(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 8
(d) 10
Answer: (c) 8
47. What is Quick Post NOT used for in ITE?
(a) Waiver – ITE Sponsored Staff
(b) Charge – OAP Module
(c) Payment
(d) Refund
Answer: (d) Refund
48. Which of the following is NOT a student group in CET career?
(a) SSAS
(b) ITE Alumni
(c) ITE Sponsored Staff
(d) ITE Local Malay
Answer: (a) SSAS
49. Online tuition calculation is used when
(a) A top up student matriculates, enrolls and pay over the counter
(b) Student drops module over the web
(c) Student submits term withdrawal request over the web
(d) An EDU student matriculates over the counter
Answer: (a) A top up student matriculates, enrolls and pay over the counter
50. What is the printout that follows quick posting?
(a) Payment Slip
(b) Receipt
(c) Payment Acknowledgement Slip
(d) Invoice cum Receipt
Answer: (c) Payment Acknowledgement Slip
51. When a balance is positive, what does it mean?
(a) Student has credited account
(b) Student has an outstanding charge balance
(c) Student has refund amount
(d) Student has overpaid
Answer: (b) Student has an outstanding charge balance
52. Which of the following is NOT a waiver?
(a) Q2Pass Holders
(b) BEST above 40
(c) ITE Alumni
(d) TRN Sponsored students
Answer: (d) TRN Sponsored students
53. Which of the following is NOT a type of fee set up in PS SA system?
(a) Term Fee
(b) Module Fee
(c) Module Sub Fee
(d) Module List Fee
Answer: (c) Module Sub Fee
54. Which of the following fee is NOT refundable?
(a) Supplementary
(b) Registration
(c) Examination
(d) Course
Answer: (b) Registration
55. What is the proper flow in creating a student’s account?
(a) Quick Admit -> Quick Enroll -> Tuition Calculation
(b) Quick Enroll -> Tuition Calculation -> Quick Admit
(c) Quick Admit -> Tuition Calculation – > Quick Enroll
(d) Tuition Calculation -> Quick Enroll -> Quick Admit
Answer: (a) Quick Admit -> Quick Enroll -> Tuition Calculation
56. Which of the following payment mode is NOT transacted over the counter?
(a) NETS
(b) Cash Card
(c) Cheque
(d) GIRO
Answer: (d) GIRO
57. Which type of PeopleSoft database Table is PSRECDEFN?
a) Database Metadata
b) PeopleTools
c) System Catalog
d) PeopleSoft Application Data
Ans:b
59. What should a user alter to change a password or create a hint for a forgotten password?
a) Access Profile
b) User Profile
c) Permission List
d) Role
e) Symbolic ID
Ans:b
60. Which action requires a two-tier connection to PeopleSoft 8?
a) Running an upgrade/copy in Application Designer
b) Updating a user profile in Maintain Security
c) Setting the default database type in Configuration Manager
d) Executing a query defined in PeopleSoft Query
e) Updating the personal data record for an employee
Ans:a
61. Which three PeopleCode events are associated with Record Field locations? (Choose three)
a) SaveEdit
b) RowSave
c) FieldEdit
d) RowDelete
e) ScrollEdit
Ans:a,c,d
62. You have made customizations in the development database and need to move them to the production database. Which tool should you use to move the customizations?
a) Upgrade Assistant
b) Application Designer
c) Application Engine
d) Import Manager
e) SQR
Ans:b
63. Given this URL: http://localhost/psp/HRDEV/EMPLOYEE/PSFT_TRN/c/PSU_TRN.PSU_STUDENT.GBL What is the Portal?
a) PSU_TRN
b) HRDEV
c) PSFT_TRN
d) EMPLOYEE
e) PSU_STUDENT
Ans:d
64. According to PeopleSoft recommendations, you apply a newly acquired Application Designer Project from an update or a fix into which database?
a) Application update
b) Development
c) Demo
d) Production
Ans:c
65. The Connect ID is used to _____.
a) Maintain a JOLT connection between the Web Server and Application Server
b) Create a direct connection to the Batch Server
c) Create a direct connection to the Web Server
d) Create a shared ID used to connect directly to the database
e) Connect to an external
Ans:d
66. Where are the query definitions stored in the PeopleSoft Internet Architecture?
a) A File Server directory
b) The Database Server as an object
c) A file on the Web Server
d) The client machine in the browser cache
e) The Application Server cache
Ans:b
67. A client has completed a PeopleTools upgrade and is now testing Query. The client notices that one SQL query is taking one hour to complete when it completed in two minutes in the previous environment. What should you do to solve this problem?
a) Set the JVM Heap size so that the Java Garbage Collector will not be invoked frequently
b) Delete the Process Scheduler cache
c) Re-create the index for the record that the query is running against
d) Bounce the Application Server
e) Reconfigure the PSAPPSRV.cfg file
Ans:c
68. The Application Engine (AE) state record _____.
a) Passes values to the PeopleSoft Process Scheduler
b) Passes values from one Action to another
c) Stores AE source code
d) Stores application data
Ans:b
69. You create a PeopleSoft Menu Definition for a Page and then grant access to users to view the Page. Which class or classes of database tables are impacted by this step?
a) The PeopleTools Tables and System Catalog Tables
b) The System Catalog Tables only
c) The PeopleTools Tables only
d) The Application Data Tables only
e) The System Catalog Tables and Application Data Tables
Ans:c
70. You must view a Business Process Map when a client asks you to _____.
a) Change the mapping of the data
b) Create a report with data from multiple tables
c) Add a field to a table
d) Change a corporate logo on a page
e) Tell the client what to do after terminating an employee
Ans:e
71. A user logs in to PeopleTools 8.4 Application Designer, which points to an HCM database in 3-tier mode. The user tries to navigate to the Workforce Administration menu but cannot see it. Why can the user NOT get to the Workforce Administration menu?
a) The user does not have the appropriate permissions.
b) PeopleSoft applications are no longer accessible in 3-tier mode.
c) The Application Server is down.
d) The Configuration Manager was set up incorrectly.
Ans:b
72. A client wants to use new images with the newly implemented PeopleSoft 8 HRMS module. Where should you store the images?
a) File Server
b) Application Server
c) Batch Server
d) Web Server
e) Database Server
Ans:e
73. When referring to security and privileges granted to a user, what is the behavior of multiple Roles and the privileges granted by them?
a) All access is rolled up to the maximum allowable privilege.
b) All access is rolled down to the lowest level of privilege.
c) Access privileges are defaulted to Dynamic Roles.
d) Access privileges are defaulted to the Primary Role.
e) Multiple Roles are not allowed.
Ans:a
74. Where is the default style sheet specified for system-wide access to PeopleSoft using the portal or PeopleSoft Internet Architecture servlets?
a) In Configuration Manager
b) In Application Designer
c) In PeopleTools Options on the PeopleTools Utilities menu
d) In Setup > Security Links on the Maintain Security menu
e) On the Web server in the Web root directory
Ans:c
75. A customer wants to apply only a critical fix to resolve an application error that is halting production. The company is three months behind in applying all the posted patches and fixes and there are numerous prerequisites to applying each fix. How can you guarantee that a prerequisite will NOT be missed?
a) Apply the patches only for modules that the client uses
b) Apply the latest PeopleSoft patch only
c) Upgrade or install to the most current PeopleTools release
d) Apply the patches for licensed modules only
e) Apply all applicable PeopleSoft service packs
Ans:e
76. After the Component Processor updates the database, which PeopleCode event is fired?
a) SaveEdit
b) SavePostChange
c) SavePreChange
d) SearchSave
Ans:b
77. What is the data retrieval method for a query to be displayed in Oracle?
a) Explain Plan
b) Execution Plan
c) Retrieval Plan
d) Access Path
e) Query Plan
Ans:a
78. How many message nodes can a database have defined within it?
a) Up to 10
b) As many as 1,000
c) An unlimited number
d) Only 1
Ans:c
79. Which statement about PeopleSoft Internet Architecture is true?
a) PeopleSoft 8 is accessed from a browser running on a PC or a Macintosh computer
b) PeopleSoft 8 can be accessed by a cellular phone only if the wireless service provider uses PeopleSoft Internet Architecture
c) PeopleSoft 8 is only accessed via a browser running on a PC with Windows
d) PeopleTools can be installed on a Macintosh computer
e) PeopleTools must be installed on the client’s computer to access PeopleSoft 8
Ans:a
80. A client has multiple Application Servers and wants to use three Application Servers for failover. Where should you make the customization?
a) Application Designer
b) Configuration.properties file
c) Configuration Manager
d) Psappsrv.cfg file
e) Psprcs.cfg file
Ans:b
81. To enable JOLT failover and load balancing in the PIA using BEA WebLogic, you must edit the configuration.properties by entering multiple Application Server domains to _____.
a) Psserver
b) AuthTokenDomain
c) Pswebservername
d) EnableReportRepository
Ans:a
82. What resource is available to PeopleSoft partners who want to obtain implementation documentation for an upcoming project?
a) Partner Connection
b) Partner Alliance
c) PeopleSoft University
d) Alliance Connection
e) PeopleSoft Connect
Ans:d
83. To which two file formats can you download query results? (Choose two)
a) XLS
b) CSV
c) EXL
d) TXT
e) DOC
Ans:a,b
84. What is a benefit of the PeopleSoft Internet Architecture browser-based deployment?
a) It offers a robust, scalable, client-centric architecture.
b) It is a PeopleTools Windows client built to run on the Internet.
c) It moves some of the code from the client to an Application Server.
d) It lowers training time because it operates like Windows.
e) It features an intuitive Web look and functions like Yahoo.
Ans:e
85. Which statement about navigating PeopleSoft 8 applications is true?
a) The client workstation must be using Windows NT
b) A user profile must be set up prior to signon
c) PeopleSoft 8 must be installed on the client
d) Internet Explorer must be used to access PeopleSoft 8
e) The client workstation must be mapped to the Application Serve
Ans:b
86. What are two valid ways to comment code in the PeopleCode editor? (Choose two)
a) // code
b) <* code *>
c) COMMENTS code
d) ! Code
e) /* code */
Ans:b,e
87. When defining the properties of a Menu Item, what are Menu type options?
a) Separator, PeopleCode, or MenuGroup
b) Component, MenuBars, or MenuGroup
c) Page, BarItem, or MenuGroup
d) Page, MenuLabels, or MenuGroup
e) Component, PeopleCode, or Separator
Ans:e
88. On which three RDBMS platforms does PeopleSoft support Unicode? (Choose three)
a) Oracle
b) IBM DB2 MVS
c) Microsoft SQL Server
d) Informix
e) IBM DB2/UDB
Ans:a,c,e
89. Which statement about deferred processing is true?
a) It has no impact on performance for PeopleSoft applications accessed using the PeopleSoft Internet Architecture
b) It can be selectively enabled or disabled for any field on a page, regardless of whether or not it is enabled on Page and Component Definitions
c) It is effectively disabled if the attribute is not set in the Component Definition, regardless of the page (and Page Field) settings
d) It can be disabled only by turning off the attribute on all Component and Page Definitions
e) It is relevant only to PeopleSoft applications accessed via the Windows client
Ans:c
90. What are two valid values for the Optimizer mode in Oracle? (Choose two)
a) STATISTIC
b) COST
c) RULE
d) DATA_DIST
Ans:b,c
91. Which two Web service solutions function only as proxy servers? (Choose two)
a) Microsoft IIS
b) IBM WebSphere
c) Apache
d) BEA WebLogic
Ans:a,c
92. Which BEA product does PeopleSoft use to manage database transactions?
a) WebLogic
b) RDMS
c) JOLT
d) SQL
e) Tuxedo
Ans:e
93. Which topics are covered by PeopleTools PeopleBooks?
a) Integration Broker, Process Scheduler, PeopleCode Developers guide, and Query
b) Data Mover, Query, Application Engine, and Developer’s Portal
c) Application Designer, PS/nVison, Customer Connection, and Administration Tools
d) Workflow, Upgrade Assistant, Compass Methodology, and Tree Manager
e) Security, PeopleTools Global Technology, Component Interfaces, and Payroll
Ans:a
94. Given this URL: http://webhost/psp/hrms/EMPLOYEE/HRMS/c/PROCESS_SCHEDULER.PRCSTYPEDEFN.GBL What is the name of the Component Definition in the URL?
a) EMPLOYEE
b) PROCESS_SCHEDULER
c) PRCSTYPEDEFN.GBL
d) psp
e) HRMS
Ans:c
95. Which topic is contained in the PeopleTools PeopleBook?
a) Managing Workforce Data
b) PeopleSoft Table Loading Sequence
c) PeopleSoft Enterprise Warehouse
d) PeopleSoft General Ledger
e) PeopleSoft Upgrade Assistant
Ans:e
96. What allows you to get a single result set from two or more separate queries at the same time?
a) Multiple Select
b) Union
c) Inner Join
d) Outer Join
e) Dynamic Where
Ans:b
97. Where are definitions used to create fields on a page in the user interface and columns in application data tables stored?
a) PSFIELD
b) PSRECFIELD
c) PS_DBFIELD
d) PSDBFIELD
Ans:d
98. Where are the definitions that make up a PeopleSoft Application stored?
a) SYSTEM CATALOG
b) PEOPLETOOLS TABLES
c) APPLICATION TABLES
d) PEOPLETOOLS CATALOG
Ans:b
99. PeopleSoft has its own naming convention for system and non-system tables. In the list below, RECORDNAME refers to the name of any table or record. Referring to the above information, which one of the following identifies the naming convention PeopleSoft uses for system tables?
a) PS_RECORDNAME
b) SYSRECORDNAME
c) PS$RECORDNAME
d) PSRECORDNAME
e) SYS_PSRECORDNAME
Ans:d
100. Where is the Application Data Cached?
a) Application server
b) Web server
c) Batch server
d) Browser Cache
e) None
Ans:e
SECTION 5
|
SECTION 6
Question No. 1
Planning of ERP Implementation Process should be done:
Cautiously
Naively
Should be done after the start of ERP Implementation
None of the above.
Question No. 2
How can management of the enterprise makes a decision about the necessity of implementing an enterprise resource planning
By outsourcing this analysis to experts in ERP.
By conducting a comparative study of ERP Implementations in
enterprises that fall in the same domain.
By determining a set of evaluation measurements.
All of the above.
Question No. 3
Enterprise-wide resource planning systems (ERP systems)
attempt to:
Integrate all corporate information in one central database
They do not allow information to be retrieved from many
different organiza¬tional positions
They allow any organizational object to be made invisible.
They allow information to be stored in multiple databases.
Question No. 4
In Manufacturing organizations, ERP implementation
necessarily automates the following functions:
Inventory Control
Material Requirement Planning
Both a and b
None of the above
Question No. 5
For the success of an ERP Implementation, factor(s)
important is/are:
Strategic support from the top management.
Readiness of employees to embrace the change.
Adherence to time schedules.
All of the above.
Question No. 6
Customization of an ERP package is enhanced if the ERP
Package is:
Modular
Inflexible
Both a and b
Either a or b
Question No. 7
The project driven enterprise deals with the design and
manufacturing of unique products and services(projects)for:
Multiple clients
Multiple clients of same vertical
Individual clients
Depends upon client to client.
Question No. 8
Key success factor that decide about product
competitiveness:
Efficient knowledge
Business experience management
Knowledge of Best Practices in the domain
All of the above.
Question No. 9
Inventory of a company refers to:
Raw materials
Work In Process
Finished Goods
All of the above
Question No. 10
SCM Drivers are:
Facilities and Inventory
Transportation and Information
Both a and b
None of these.
Question No. 11
Which of the following statements is false:
Forecasts are never right.
The longer the forecast horizon, the better is the forecast.
The longer the forecast horizon, the worse is the forecast.
Aggregate forecasts are more accurate
Question No. 12
One of the benefits of Supply Chain Management is:
Improved forecasting precision.
Increased Inventory throughout the chain.
Increased Bull-whip effect.
Unreliable financial information.
Question No. 13
Factor(s) that contribute(s) to Bull Whip Effect:
Demand forecasting practices.
Longer lead times.
Batch Ordering
All of the above.
Question No. 14
Which of the following statements is true about ERP
Implementation:
“As-Is” stage follows “To-Be” stage.
“To-Be” stage follows “As-Is” stage.
“Go-Live” stage and “As-Is” stage can proceed
simultaneously.
None of the above.
Question No. 15
Which of the following factor does not contribute to the
success of ERP?
Focus on business processes and requirements first.
Focus on achieving a healthy ERP ROI (Return on Investment),
including post-implementation performance measurement.
Strong project management and resource commitment.
Lack of budget.
Question No. 16
Who plays and important role in the selection of ERP
Package?
Consultants
Vendors
Users
All of the above.
Question No. 17
Knowledge Management cannot be exercised through:
Data Entry Operation
Expression Management
Database Management
Hypertext Management
Question No. 18
Which of the following is not part of Customer Relationship
Management?
Sales Force Automation
Contact Management
Lead Management
None of these
Question No. 19
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) true with
respect to Enterprise Application Integration (EAI)?
EAI is an integration framework composed of a collection of
technologies and services.
EAI is the process of linking applications within a single
organization together in order to simplify and automate business processes.
EAI system could front-end a cluster of applications,
providing a single consistent access interface to these applications and
shielding users to interact with different software packages.
All of the above.
Question No. 20
Which of the following ways is not appropriate to bring in
stabilization and acceptance in the “Go-Live” stage?
Training of end-users
Training of only process owners
Data fixes to resolve data migration issues
Help desk for troubleshooting.
Question No. 21
ERP Vendor should be evaluated on:
Business functions or modules supported by their software.
Features and integration capabilities of the software.
Both a and b
Neither a nor b.
Question No. 22
Before trying to implement a major ERP system, organizations
can assess their ability to be successful through:
Capability Maturity Model, CMM
People’s Capability Maturity Model, PCMM
ISO Certification
Any one of these.
Question No. 23
Which one of the following is key ERP Vendor(s):
SAP
Oracle
Microsoft Dynamics
All of the above.
Question No. 24
Which one of the following is the key SCM Vendor(s):
Manugistics
Seibel
Only a
Both a and b
Question No. 25
Which one of the following is the key CRM Vendor(s):
Clarify
Seibel
Only a
Both a and b
Question No. 26
Which of the following statement is false:
ERP systems are set to proliferate locally.
ERP systems implementation is a complex organizational
activity.
ERP systems implementation requires strong project
management oversight.
ERP systems provide improved and added functionality for an
organization.
Question No. 27
Which of the following is/are limitation(s) of system
integration:
Leveling the Competitive Environment.
High initial set-up costs.
Power and interdepartmental conflicts.
Both b and c.
Question No. 28
Which of the following stage is not part of Business Process
Reengineering:
“As-Is” analysis
“To-Be” mapping
Post-Implementation support
Measuring new processes based on meeting goals and vision.
Question No. 29
Which of the following is not a core SCM process:
Procurement
Sales Force Automation
Order fulfillment
Forecasting
Question No. 30
Collaborative Design and Product Development is part of:
SCM
ERP
CRM
None of these.
Question No. 31
Which of the following statement is false about EAI:
EAI facilitates the flow of information.
Straps together transactions among disparate and complex
applications and business processes.
Helps in communication among applications only within an
organization and not among organizations.
EAI facilitates the move towards market globalization.
Question No. 32
Which one of the following is not a benefit of EAI:
Increased efficiency.
Higher Costs.
Improved Customer service.
Enhanced access.
Question No. 33
Which of the following statement is false about SCM:
SCM plays a major role only in the success of e-business and
not e-commerce.
A good SCM is designed in collaboration with the
organizations’ partners.
ERP vendors have started including SCM as a component or
module of the software.
SCM provides a link for services, materials, and information
across the value chain of the organization.
Question No. 34
Which one of the following is not a component of CRM system:
Market Research tools
Advanced Planning and Optimization (APO) software
Sales Force Automation software
Customer service and support tools
Question No. 35
Which of the following statement is true about CRM
Implementation:
CRM Implementation must never focus on a technology
solution.
CRM solutions must be part of corporate strategy from the
beginning.
CRMs can be an afterthought as they are not critical in an
organization.
Both a and b.
Question No. 36
Which one of the following processes does not fall in the
purview of CRM:
CRM delivery process
CRM support process
CRM analytical process
CRM recruitment process
Question No. 37
Which of the following architecture(s) is/are found in ERP
implementations:
N-tier architecture
Web-based architecture
Service Oriented Architecture
All of these
Question No. 38
Assessing readiness in an ERP implementation is critical to
the overall implementation process. Which one of the following contribute
towards ensuring ERP readiness:
Project management’s focus on the issues, tasks, and
activities to being ready.
Knowledge Transfer Process in place.
Discontinue training and complete focus on issues.
Support functions are in place for post-production support
for operationalizing the ERP.
Question No. 39
Which one of the following roles does not fall in the purview
of the owners, ie, senior management of the company, with respect
Implementation:
Maintain financial integrity of the project.
Provide strategic policy and procedure direction.
Establish project planning guidelines and methodology.
Publicly demonstrate support and commitment to the project.
Question No. 40
Which of the following statement(s) is/are false with
respect to ERP Implementation methodologies:
The emphasis on the ERP software life cycle is whether to
customize the software or to change the
organization’s processes to match those software.
The implementation strategy can be a comprehensive one,
vanilla, or middle-of-the road strategy.
ERP life cycle must incorporate traditional SDLC stages.
Rapid Implementation methodologies have been developed by
ERP consulting firms.
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